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Six Sigma Green Belt
Part One:
Multiple Choices:
1.
The
primary purpose of a control chart is to:
a.
Set
Specifications and tolerances
b.
Compare operations.
c.
Determine the stability of a process.
d.
Accept or reject a lot of material
2. When a
control chart is used on a new process, capability can be assessed at which of
the following times?
a.
Before the chart is first started
b.
After the first ten points are plotted
c.
When the plotted points hug the centerline
d.
After the process is shown to be in control
3.
Precision is best described as:
a.
A comparison to a known standard
b.
The achievement of expected outgoing quality
c.
The repeated consistency of results
d.
The difference between an average measurement and
the actual value
4. The
overall ability of two or more operators to obtain consistent results
repeatedly when measuring the same set of parts and using the same measuring
equipment is the definition of:
a.
Repeatability
b.
Precision
c.
Reproducibility
d.
Accuracy
5.
Which
of the following conditions must be met for a process to be in a state of
statistical control?
a.
Most
of the product out by the process is in specification.
b.
All
subgroup averages and rang are within control limits.
c.
All variation has been completely removed
d.
Previously
optimal process settings are used.
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6. Which of the following
measures of dispersion is equal to the sum of deviations from the mean squared
divided by the sample size?
a.
Range
b.
Standard
deviation
c.
Variance
d.
Mode
7.
An
X and R chart is used to:
a.
Indicate
process variation
b.
Specify
design Limits
c.
Interpret
costs
d.
Identify
customer expectations
8. Which of
the following is the most useful graphical tool for promoting and understanding
the process of capability?
a.
A
flowchart
b.
A
histogram
c.
An
affinity diagram
d.
An
Ishikawa diagram
9.
The type of chart that presents the value of items
in descending order is a:
a.
Histogram
b.
Pareto chart
c.
U chart
d.
Cusum chart
10.
Measures of which of the following provide
attributes data?
a.
Temperature in degrees
b.
Attendance at meetings
c.
Weight in pounds
d.
Length in metric units
11.
The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted
on which of the following types of control chart?
a.
P chart
b.
U chart
c.
Np chart
d.
C chart
12.
A cause and effect diagram is a useful tool for
doing which of the following?
a.
Determining the flow of a process
b.
Detecting shifts in a process
c.
Developing
theories based on symptoms
d.
Arranging
theories by defect count
13.
Which of the following statistics would best
describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
a.
Mode
b.
Mean
c.
Standard deviation
d.
Range
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14.
Which
of the following type of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?
a.
Histogram
b.
Frequency
distributions
c.
Pareto
chart
d.
Process
observations
15.
Out
of the following which technique is most useful in narrowing issues and
limiting discussion?
a.
Brainstorming
b.
Quality
function deployment
c.
Cause
and effect analysis
d.
Mutilating
16.
In
statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or systematic is called:
a.
Bias
b.
Sensitivity
c.
Random
d.
Shift
17. For a
normal distribution, two standard deviation on each side of the mean would
include what percentage of the total population:
a.
47%
b.
68%
c.
95%
d.
99%
18.
If a distribution is normal, u=50 s=15, what
percentage of data will be less than 30?
a.
59.18%
b.
40.82%
c.
9.18%
d.
1.33%
19.
A
company is receiving an unusually high number of returns from various
customers. The first step in investigating the problem would be to
a.
Check the inspection records
b.
Establish the correlation of the returns to
shipments
c.
Brainstorm the potential causes
d.
Classify the returns by type and degree of serious
20.
Which of the following is the best definition of a
flow chart?
a.
A diagram used to structure ideas into useful
categories
b.
An illustration used to analyze variation in a
process
c.
A
picture used to separate steps of a process in sequential order
d.
An
analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a desired change
21.
Which of the following activities would NOT
contribute to the effective functioning of a team?
a.
Eliminating unnecessary activities
b.
Development
team performance measures
c.
Defining process in detail
d.
Monitoring each member’s performance
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22.
What
is the standard deviation of the population-10, 4, 16, 12, and 8?
a.
4.00
b.
4.47
c.
16.00
d.
20.00
23. Which of
the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study the
symptoms of a problem?
a.
Check
sheet
b.
Flow
diagram
c.
Force-field
analysis
d.
Activity
network diagram
24.
Which
of the following measures is a sufficient statistic for the parameter u?
a.
Median
b.
Mid-range
c.
Mean
d.
Mode
25.
Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are
most commonly analyzed in:
a.
SPC charts
b.
Multi-vari charts
c.
Cause and effect diagram
d.
Run charts
26.
Which of the following describes the deming method
for continuous improvement?
a.
Cost of quality analysis
b.
Process map
c.
Tree Diagram
d.
Plan-do-check-act cycle
27. In analysis of variance,
which of the following distribution is the basis for determining whether the
variance estimates are all from the same population?
a.
Chi square
b.
Students
c.
Normal
d.
F
28.
Which of the following statement best describes
the set of value of a random variable?
a.
It is finite.
b.
It is an interval
c.
It
can be discrete or continuous.
d.
It
can be tracked by using control charts or scatter plots.
29.
Which of the following is the best description of
randomization?
a.
A technique used to increase the precision of an
experiment
b.
A
means of assuring representative sampling
c.
The repetition of an observation or measurement
d.
The relationship between two or more variables
30. When the order of items is
not important, which of the following method is used to determine the number of
sets and subsets of items?
a.
Combination
b.
Permutation
c.
Factorization
d.
Simulation
31.
Scatter
diagrams are best described as:
a.
Histograms.
b.
Correlation
analysis.
c.
Pareto
analysis.
d.
Ishikawa
diagrams.
32.
A
__________ is created to determine customers of a specific process.
a.
Pareto
chart
b.
Flow
diagram
c.
Cause
and effect diagram
d.
Scatter
diagram
33. A
production line uses signs at specific points on the line to indicate when
components or raw materials need to be replenished. This practice is an example
of:
a.
Kanban
b.
Poka-yake
c.
Checkpoints
d.
Hoshin
34.
Which of the following is a good tool for planning
cycle time reduction and concurrent operations?
a.
A timeline
b.
A Pareto diagram
c.
An X and R chart
d.
A PERT chart
35.
Attribute and variable data are best described as
which of the following?
a.
Counted values measured values
b.
Counted values visual features
c.
Measured values counted values
d.
Visual features counted values
36.
All of the following are common ways for people to
react to conflict except:
a.
Competing
b.
Collaborating
c.
Avoiding
d.
Sabotaging
37.
A
quality manager has chosen to survey customer satisfaction by taking samples
based on the categories of frequency of use, categories of use, and
demographic. This technique is known as
a.
Random
sampling
b.
Data collection
c.
Stratification
d.
Customer
classification
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38.
Which
of the following actions is Not used to reduce process cycle time?
a.
Analyzing
current processes
b.
Reducing
queue times
c.
Setting
priorities
d.
Implementing
activity-based costing
39. A
company’s accounts payable department is trying to reduce the time between
receipt and payment of invoices and has recently completed a flowchart. Which
of the following tool is the next to be used by them?
a.
Fishbone
diagram
b.
Scatter
diagram
c.
Box
and whisker plat
d.
Histogram
40. In a
manufacturing company, the machine shop is what kind of customer in relation to
the Human Resource department?
a.
Intermediate
b.
Hidden
c.
External
d.
Internal
END OF SECTION A
Section B: Short Notes (30 Marks)
·
This
section consists of Short Notes Questions.
·
Answer all the questions.
·
Each Question carries 6 marks.
1.
Describe how QFD fits into the overall DFSS
process.
2.
What is interrelationship Digraph? Explain it with
example.
3. Find the
area under the standard normal curve between +1.50 standard deviations and
+2.50 standard deviations.
4.
Define terms related to One-Way ANOVA and
interpret their results & data plots.
5.
Define
& describe the use of Rational Sub grouping.
END OF SECTION B
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Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)
·
This section consists of Applied Theory Questions.
·
Answer all the questions.
·
Each question carries 15 marks.
·
Detailed information should from the part of your
answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words).
1. Suppose
you are cooking steak for 100 people, & the current approval rating is 75%
acceptable. You want to know the affect of different methods and approaches to
see how the overall approval or “yield” is affected. By using the Full
Factorial method explain how the overall approval or “yield” is affected.
2. Interpret
Control Charts? Distinguish between common & special causes using rules for
determining stastical control.
END OF SECTION C
Six Sigma Black Belt
Section A: Objective Type (40 Marks)
·
This section consists of Multiple Choice
questions.
·
Answer all the questions.
·
Part one questions carry 1 mark each & Part
Two questions carry 2 marks each.
Part One:
Multiple Choices:
1. Calculate the estimated
variance of the population from which the following values have been randomly
selected: 2.8 2.7 2.6 2.9 2.8 2.8 2.8.
a.
095
b.
009
c.
088
d.
008
2. The mean, median and mode
of a distribution have the same value. What can be said about the distribution?
a.
It is exponential
b.
It is normal
c.
It is uniform
d.
None of the above
3.
Approximately what percent of the data values are
smaller than the mean?
a.
25%
b.
50%
c.
75%
d.
None of above
4.
A normal probability plot is used to:
a.
Determine whether the distribution is normal
b.
Plot Z value
c.
Determine
process capability
d.
It
percent out of specification
5. Nominal Group technique is
used to:
a. Help a group reach consensus
b. Generate a group on new
ides
c.
Provide a consistent stable group leadership
d. Provide a name for the
group
6.
An
example of a project metric would be:
a.
The
decrease in defect occurrence
b.
The
decrease in product cost
c.
The
decrease in cycle time
d.
All
the above
7.
A
correct statement about the relationship between the terms parameter and
statistic is:
a.
A
population statistic is more accurate than a parameter
b.
A
sample parameter is used to estimate a statistic
c.
A
sample statistic is used to estimate a population parameter
d.
Standard
deviation calculation requires both statistics and parameters
8.
A
and B are events. P(A) = 0.80 and P(B) = 0.90:
a.
Events
A and B are disjoint or mutually exclusive
b.
Events
A and B are not disjoint or mutually exclusive
c.
P
(A and B) = 0
d.
P(A
and B) = 1.7
9.
In
a certain sampling situation, a=0, b=0.08. the power of the sampling plan this
case is:
a.
0
b.
0.08
c.
1.00
d.
0.92
10. A
newspaper article describes a high positive correlation between obesity and
orange juice consumption among six-year-old children’s. Parents who restrict
the use of orange juice for their children have:
a.
Made a type I error
b.
Made a type II error
c.
Misunderstood margin of error
d.
Confused correlation with causation
11.
In an experimental design context, replications
refer to:
a.
Duplicating experimental result at another
location
b.
Repeating a test with the same factor levels
c.
Obtaining the same or similar result from
different factors
d.
Repeating an experiment but using at least one
different factor level
12.
Find the upper control limit for a range chart if
n=4 and the average range is 2.282.
a.
2.282
b.
4.564
c.
5.208
d.
3.423
13.
An
x-bar control chart been established with control limits of 3.245 and 3.257,
n=5. An engineer collects the following sample and plots the average on the
control chart: 3.257, 3.256, 3.258, 3.259
a.
The
process is out of control
b.
The process is not out of control
c.
The engineer misused the control chart
d.
The
control limits are incorrect
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14. TEIZ is an acronym which
refers to:
a. A set of problem solving
tools
b. An organization of quality
professionals
c. An experiment using
transitional results
d. A Russian general
responsible for creative thinking
15. A robust design is one
which;
a. Has high reliability
b. Has low maintenance
frequency
c. Is simple to manufacture’
d. Is resistant to varying
environmental condition
16. A frequent cause of system
sub optimization is:
a. Optimizing individual
process
b. Failing to draw a system
flow chart
c. Using data with outliers
d. Failing to consider the
normal distribution
17. The x2 distribution is:
a.
Symmetric
b.
Left skewed
c.
Right skewed
d.
Normal
18. An
advantage of using standard deviation rather than range for measuring dispersion
of a large sample is that:
a.
Standard deviation has a simpler formula
b.
Calculators have a standard deviation key but not
a range Key
c.
Standard deviation uses information from each
measurement
d.
Range calculation are not normally distributed
19. The team development stage
characterized by expression of individual opinions and ideas often without
regard for team objectives is known as:
a.
Performing
b.
Norming
c.
Conflicting
d.
Storming
20.
SMED is an acronym for activity that:
a.
Involve housekeeping in the work area
b.
Makes mistake of a certain type impossible
c. Emphasizes the pull of the
customer
d. Reduces set up the time
21.
A principle advantage of fractional factorial
experimental designs is:
a.
Reduced cost
b. Improved accuracy
c.
Increased confounding
d.
Higher confidence level
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22.
Dr.
W Edwards Deming:
a.
Lectured
in Japan after World War II
b.
Was
an author of several books in the US
c.
Is
considered an expert in the quality field
d.
All
of the above
Part Two:
23. What percent of population
falls below the lower specification limits?
a. 9.18%
b. 22.66%
c. 6.68%
d. 1.83%
24. Find the mean, median and
mode of the following data set: 9, 11, 12, 14, 18, 18, 18, 20, and 23:
a. 15.5, 18, 18
b. 15, 14, 18
c. 15, 12, 18
d.
15.5, 16, 18
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Use for problems 25-27:
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A
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B
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Res.
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20
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30
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40
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50
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25.
Calculate the main effect of factor A:
a.
20
b.
25
c.
30
d.
None of the above
26.
Calculate the interaction effect:
a.
20
b.
25
c.
40
d. None of the above
27.
If it is desirable to maximize the response R, the
following levels should be used:
a.
A+ and B+
b.
A+ and B-
c.
A-
and B+
d.
None of the above
Use for questions28-30:
Here is an experimental
design with result:
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A
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B
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C
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1
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+
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2
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+
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3
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+
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+
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+
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4
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+
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-
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Responses
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10
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11
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10
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22
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20
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23
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34
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36
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37
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26
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25
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25
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28. This experimental design
is:
a. Full factorial
b. Half factorial
c. Quarter factorial
d. None of the above
29.
The number of factors, levels and replications:
a.
3, 3, 3
b.
3, 2, 2
c.
3, 2, 3
d.
None of the above
30.
An indication of the experimental error is
available because the design has:
a.
Multiple replications
b.
Multiple levels
c.
Multiple factors
d.
None of the above
31.
The average number of defects is 21.6. Find the
upper control limit for the C-chart.
a.
26.4
b.
24.6
c.
26.2
d.
None of the above
END OF SECTION A
Section B: Short Notes (30 Marks)
·
This section consists of Short Notes Questions.
·
Answer all the questions.
·
Each Question carries 6 marks.
1. Briefly define Affinity
Diagram with an example.
2.
By using imaginary figures draw a Run Chart.
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3.
Consider
the following data & develop a normal probability graph paper & normal
probability plot:
7.9,
9.7, 10.6, 12.7, 12.8, 18.1, 21.2, 33.0, 43.5, 51.1, 81.4, 93.1
4.
A
painting process produces coatings with a thickness of 0.0005 & a standard
deviation of 0.00002. What should the tolerance limits be for this process? Briefly
explain Tolerance design?
5.
What
is Pugh matrix? State the steps which are used in Pugh matrix.
END OF SECTION B
Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)
·
This section consists of Applied Theory Questions.
·
Answer all the questions.
·
Each question carries 15 marks.
·
Detailed information should from the part of your
answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words).
1. Define & describe the
purpose of root cause analysis? Recognize the issues involved in identifying a
root cause analysis and list various tools for resolving chronic problem?
2. Describe
the purpose & elements of FMEA including risk priority number (RPN), and
evaluate FMEA results for processes, products, & services. Distinguish
between design FMEA (DFMEA) & process FMEA (PFMEA) and interpret results
from each.
END OF SECTION C
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